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English MCQ test For Exams

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Multiple Choice Questions MCQ English
Test your English MCQ Questions
Directions (1 – 10) in the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These number are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested, one of which suits the black appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
We are in the first decade of the new millennium. The first decade of the last century, sanitation was a difficult affair, in villages. The people were not ..(1)…. to do anything themselves ….(2)…. the field labourers were not ready to do their own scavenging. But our people did not … .(3)…. heart easily. They. ….(4)…. their, energies on ….(5).. a village ideally clean. They ….(6)…. the roads and the courtyards. Cleared out the wells, filled up the pools nearby and lovingly ….(7)…. the villagers to raise volunteers, from …(8)……. Themselves.Our team succeeded In their mission so much that in some villages people were so .(9)…. that they even prepared roads to ….(10)…. our cars to go from place to place.

1.
(1) Prepared
(2) Tempted
(3) Engaged
(4) Reluctant
Ans: 1

2.
(1) Exceptionally
(2) Only
(3) Even
(4) Because
Ans:3

3.
(1) Lend,
(2) Console
(3) Lose
(4) Treat
Ans:3

4.
(1) Conserved
(2) Wasted
(3) Dispensed
(4) Conserved
Ans:3

5.
(1) Washing
(2) Spotting.
(3) Making
(4) Disinfecting
Ans:3

6.
(1) Dug
(2) Swept
(3) Paved
(4)Concreted
Ans:3

7.
(1) Declined
(2) Compelled
(3) Resisted
(4) Persuaded
Ans:4

8. (1) Enrolling
(2) Preparing
(3) Convincing
(4) Relying
Ans:3

9. (1) Generous
(2) Lethargic
(3) Enthusiatic
(4) Courteous
Ans:3

10.
(1) Enable
(2) Feel
(3) Drive
(4) Push
Ans:1

Directions (11-14): Each of the questions below, consists of a word/ group of words
printed in bold, followed by four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the word or the group of words or the expression which is the right meaning of the word in the place of the question.

11. The strike was instigated by the rival firm.
(1) alleviate (2) increase (3) provoke (4) seduce
Ans:3

12. Because of public resentment, the king had to rescind his order.
(1) Retain (2) precluded (3) cancel (4) profound
Ans:3

13. She tried to pay the check with a spurious ten dollar bill.
(1) fake (2) false (3) scanty(4) cheat from pernicious.
Ans:1

14. She suffered from pernicious anaemia.
(1) very nexus
2) loss of
(3) hanker
(4) very destructive
Ans:4

Directions (15-19): Each of the questions below consists of a word/ group of words printed in bold, followed by four choices (1), (2), (3), and (4). Choose the word opposite to the right meaning of the word in the palce of the question.

15. Many people are eccentric in their nature..
(1) anomalous (2) whimsical (3) particular (4) regular
Ans: 4

16. She had a sardonic smile on her lips.
(1) spurious (2) winsome
(3) fake (4) vulgar
Ans:2

17. His Intrinsic nature attracts me.
(1) sardonic (2) winsome (3) beautiful (4) handsome
Ans:1

18.I got impunity by the lord’s mercy.
(1) punishment (2) take to task (3) covered (4) None of these
Ans:1

19. 1 strongly dissent from what the last speaker has said.
(1) favour (2) oppose (3) against (4) agree
Ans:4

20. Statement: The Government should provide employment to the students only on basis of merit and not on the basis of reservation.
Assumptions:
1. There are many poor students belonging to upper castes.
II. It is not possible to test the merit of students.
(1) Only I is implicit
(2) Only II is Implicit
(3) Both I and II are implicit
(4) Neither I nor II is implicit
Ans:- 4

Model test paper State judicial Service Test MCQ law

This test is useful For Following Jobs/Exams
Haryana PSC HCS Judicial Examination
Madhya Pradesh Higher Judicial Service
Law Officer in Corporation bank vacancy
Law Officer posts in United bank of india
H.P. Judicial Service (HPJS) Competitive (Preliminary) Examination

1. State the correct answer, the familiar rule ‘redeem up foreclose down’ is a combination of provisions of—
(A) Sections-89 and 91
(B) Sections-91 and 92
(C) Sections-92 and 93
(U) Sections-91 and 94

2. ‘A’ gives Rs. 500 to ‘B’ on condition that ‘B’ shall marry A’s daughter ‘C’. On the date of transfer ‘C’ was dead. The transfer is void under which section of Transfer of Property Act?
(A) Section-25
(B) Section-26
(C) Secion-27
(D) Section-28

3. A right of future maintenance in whatsoever manner arising, secured or determined
(A) Can be transferred
(B) Cannot be transferred
(C) Can be sold
(D) Can be vested

4. A gift of future property is
(A) Valid
(B) Voidable
(C) Void
(D) Irregular

5. Within the meaning of provisions of section 67 of the Transfer of Property Act the mortgage remedies by suit are?
(A) For foreclosure or for sale
(B) For sale
(C) For appointment of receiver
(D) All are relevant

6. To which of the following sections 5 to 37 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 apply?
(A) Transfers of movable property only
(B) Transfers of Immovable property only
(C) Transfers of property whether movable or immovable
(D) Specific transfer and not to general principles of transfer of property

7.‘A’ transfers Rs. 5000 to ‘B’ on condition that he shall execute a
certain lease within three months after A’s death and if he should
neglect to do so, to C. B dies in A’s lifetime. Which section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 shall apply in deciding the legal right of ‘C’?
(A) Section-29
(B) Section-26
(C) Section-25
(D) Section-27

Codes:
8.Assertion (A) : Section 14 of TPA provides for the Rules against perpetuity.
Reason (R) :This Rule is based on public policy.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

9.What is the minimum imprisonment prescribed for use of
deadly weapons in ‘Dacoity’?
(A) 10 years
(B) 07 years
(C) 05 years
(D) 14 years

10.Under which section of the Indian Penal Code, it is omission, and not an act, which is an offence?
(A) Section-491
(B) Section-296
(C) Section-468
(D) Section-508

11.Under IPC, which one of the following sections makes provision of Solitary Confinement?
(A) Section-71
(B) Section-72
(C) Section-73
(D) Section-74

12.Which one of the following offences is not compoundable under IPC?
(A) Section 323
(B) Section-334
(C) Section-448
(D) Section-307

13. “1 believe in operation Valmiki because every Sant has a past
and every criminal has a future.”
This statement is of?
(A) Justice Sikri
(B) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
(C) Justice Krislma Iyer
(D) Justice J. S. Verma

14. Which one of the following is an incomplete crime?
(A) Public Nuisance
(B) Criminal attempt
(C) Unlawful Assembly
(D) Riot

15.A, on grave and sudden provocation from ‘Z’ fires a pistol at
Z, who does not die, A is guilty of
(A) Attempt to murder
(B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) Attempt to commit culpable homicide
(D) Grievous hurt

16.‘X’ with the intention to kill ‘Y’ supplies him powdered sugar believing it to be poison. ‘Y’ eats the powder. ‘X’ is guilty of?
(A) No offence
(B) Attempt to commit murder
(C) Attempt to commit culpable homicide not amounting murder
(D) Abetment to commit murder

17.‘X’ is a good swimmer. He finds, Y, a child of seven years of age
drowning in a canal. He could have saved the child but did not
do so. The child is drowned.
‘X’is guilty of?
(A) No offence
(B) Murder
(C) Abetment of suicide
(D) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

18. An executioner who execute the death penalty is protected from criminal liability under which section of IPC ?
(A) Section-97
(B) Section-78
(C) Section-79
(D) Section-80

19. ‘A’ finds a purse with money on the high-road, not knowing to whom the purse belong, ‘A’ picks up the purse. He has corn- miffed an offence under—
(A) Section-403 IPC
(B) Section-404 IPC
(C) Section-405 IPC
(D) None of the above

20. Just after theft, a man is found in the possession of stolen goods. This matter relates to which one of the following sections of Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Section-114-A
(B) Section-114
(C) Section-1l5
(D) Section-111-A

21. In which section of IPC the law relating to ‘Dowry death’ is contained?
(A) Section-304 (b)
(B) Section-304
(C) Section-299
(D) Section-302

22. What is the age of the child to get immunity from criminal liability?
(A) Less than 10 years
(B) Less than 7 years
(C) Less than 8 years
(D) Less than 14 years

23. In which case the Supreme Court has struck down section 303 IPC
as unconstitutional?
(A) Machchi Singh Vs. State of Punjab
(B) Bachan Singh Vs. State of Punjab
(C) Santa Singh Vs. State of Punjab
(D) Mithu Singh Vs. State of Punjab

24. The law relating to criminal misappropriation of property is given under section?
(A) 403 IPC
(B) 404 IPC
(C) 407IPC
(D) 411 IPC

25. Assertion (A) : Crime is punish able because it is provided in the law.
Reason (14) : Crime is revolting to the moral sense of society.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

26. ‘A’ shoots ‘Z’ with the intention of killing him. ‘Z’ dies in consequence. ‘A’ commits—
(A) Culpable homicide
(B) Murder
(C) Causing death by negligence
(D) None of the above

27. Kidnapping is of?
(A) One kind
(B) Two kinds
(C) Three kinds
(D) Four kinds

28. ‘X’ sends through his servant a typewriter to be delivered to ‘Y’ his friend. The servant takes the typewriter and uses it over a period of time. The servant is to be guity of?
(A) Extortion
(B) Theft
(C) Criminal misappropriation of property
(D) Criminal breath of trust

29. ‘B’ takes a gold ring of ‘A’ out of ‘A’s possession without ‘A’s consent with the intention of keeping it till ‘A’ gives ‘B’ some money for its restoration to ‘A’. ‘B’ is guilty of—
(A) Cheating
(B) Criminal breach of trust
(C) Criminal misappropriation of property
(D) Theft

30. ‘X’ with the intention to cause miscarriage, administered a drug to a pregnant lady ‘Y’. The child in the womb died. ‘X’ is guilty of?
(A) Murder
(B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) No offence
(D) Causing miscarriage

31.It cannot be committed in a private place.
(A) Murder
(B) Riot
(C) Assault
(D) Affray

32. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has laid down important guidelines to abate sexual harassment?
(A) Vishaka Vs. State of Rajasthan
(B) Apparel Export Corp. Vs. A. K. Chopra
(C) Chairman Railway Board Vs. Chandrima Das
(D) None of the above

33. ‘A’ incites a dog to spring upon ‘Z’ without ‘Z’s consent. Here ‘A’ intends to cause injury, fear or annoyance to ‘Z’.
(A) ‘A’ uses criminal force to ‘Z’
(B) ‘A’ uses force to ‘Z’
(C) ‘A’ uses assault to ‘Z’
(D) All the above

34. ‘A’ enters Z’s house through a window. ‘A’ commits?
(A) Trespass
(B) House trespass
(C) House breaking
(D) All the above

35. Assertion :( A) Homicide is the killing of a human-being by a human-being.
Reason (R) : Homicide is always unlawful.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below?
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the coned explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

36. ‘A’ has sexual intercourse with his own wife who is living separately from him under a decree of separation without her consent. Which section of Indian Penal Code covers this matter?
(A) Section-376
(B) Section-376-A
(C) Section-376-B
(D) Section-376-C

37. Which Order under C.P.C. pro vides detailed rules regarding judgements and decree?
(A) Order XIX
(B) Order XX
(C) Order XXI
(D) Order XXIII

38. Which of the provision of C.P.C. deals with consequences of disobedience of an injunction granted by Court?
(A) Order 39 RI
(B) Order39 R2
(C) Order 39 R2-A
(D) Order 39 R3

39. Order 21 CRC. dealing with execution of decrees and orders contains?
(A) 100 Rules
(C) 103 Rules
(B) 102 Rules
(D) 106 Rules

40. Which of the following is not a case on res-judicata?
(A) Duche’s of Kingston case
(B) Chhajju Ram Vs. Neki
(C) Mmmi Bibi Vs. Trilok Nath
(D) Byram Pestonji Kariwala Vs.Union of India

41. Which provision of C.P.C. deals with enforcement of a decree against legal representative?
(A) Section-50
(B) Section-51
(C) Section-55
(D) None of the above

42. An original suit for the value of Rs. 20 lakh shall be instituted in
the Court of?
(A) High Court
(B) District Judge
(C) Civil Judge (Junior Division)
(D) Civil Judge (Senior Division)

43. Which of the following provisions of C.P.C. provides for adjudication of claims and objections to attachment of property?
(A) Order 21 R 59
(B) Order 2l R 58
(C) Order 21 R 57
(D) None of the above

44. Which provision of the C.P.C. provides that one person may sue or defend on behalf of all in same interest?
(A) Order 1R1
(B) Order 2 R2
(C) Order lR8
(D) Order lR9

45. The meaning of written statement is?
(A) Suit of plaintiff
(B) Suit of defendant
(C) Answer by defendant of plaintiff’s suit
(D) Answer by plaintiff of defendant’s suit

46. Under which provision of C.P.C. the Collector may be appointed
as a Receiver?
(A) Order 40 Rule I
(B) Order 40 Rule 2
(C) Order 40 Rule 3
(D) Order 40 Rule 5

47. ‘Objections as to local or pecuniary jurisdiction shall be raised at the first opportunity.’ This is the essence of CRC.
(A)Section-20
(B) Section-21
(C)Section-24
(D) Section-25

48. The doctrine of res-judicata is not applicable in the case of following writ
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Certiorari
(C) Mandamus
(D) Quo-warranto

49. All orders and notices served on or given to any person under the provisions of C.P.C. shall be in writing is provided under?
(A) Section-141
(B) Section-142
(C) Section-143
(D) Section-144

50. Provisions relating to set-off and counter claims are contained in which one of the following orders?
(A) Order VI
(B) Order VII
(C) Order VIII
(D) Order IX

51. The court may compel the attendance of any person to whom a summons has been issued under section-32 CRC. and for the purpose may impose a fine upon him not exceeding
(A) Rs. Five hundred
(B) Rs. One thousand
(C) Rs. Three thousand
(D) Rs. Five thousand

52. No second appeal shall lie under section 102 C.P.C. from any decree, when the subject matter of original suit is for recovery of money not exceeding?
(A) Rs. Three thousand
(B) Rs. Five thousand
(C) Rs. Twenty thousand
(D) Rs. Twenty five thousand

53. How many minimum number of judges of the High Court are required to sign the confirmation of death sentence?
(A) 3
(C) 4
(B) 2
(D) 5

54. An irregularity by the Magistrate in which one of the following cases will not vitiate proceedings?
(A) Making an order for maintenance
(B) Demanding security for good behaviour
(C) Tendering pardon to accomplice
(D) Trying an offence summarily

55. Order under section-144 Cr. P.C. 1973 is amenable to writ jurisdiction on violation of any Fundamental Rights. This was
held in case of—
(A) Dibakar Naik Vs. Pushpalata Patel (1997)3 crimes 107
(B) Gopalachari Vs. State of Kerala 1981 SC.R 338
(C) Gulam Abbas Vs. State of U.P. 1981 SC. 2198
(D) Shelam Ramesh Vs. State ofA.P. (1999) 8 SCC. 369

56. Classification of compoundable and non-compoundable offences has been provided under Cr. P.C.in ?
(A) First Schedule
(B) Second Schedule
(C) Section 321 Cr. P.C.
(D) Section 320 Cr. P.C.

57. Which provision under the Code of Criminal- Procedure, 1973 prescribes the mode of execution of sentence of death that “the convict be hanged by the neck until he be dead”?
(A) Section-413
(B) Form No. 42 of the Second Schedule of the Code
(C) Section-416
(D) Section-414

58. Which section of Cr. P.C pro vides for confirmation by the
High Court of an order of death sentence passed by the Session
Court prior to its execution?
(A) Section-366
(B) Section-368
(C) Section-369
(D) Section-371

59. The appeal against an order of acquittal passed by the Court of
Judicial Magistrate first class shall lie to?
(A) The Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) The Court of Session
(C) The High Court
(D) The Supreme Court

60.In which one of the following sections of Cr. P.C. provision for free legal aid is made
(A) Section-301
(B) Section-306
(C) Section-304
(D) Section-309

Answers:

1 D
2 A
3 B
4 C
5 A
6 C
7 D
8 A
9 B
10 A
11 C
12 D
13 C
14 B
15 C
16 A
17 A
18 B
19 D
20 B
21 A
22 B
23 D
24 A
25 B
26 B
27 B
28 D
29 D
30 D
31 D
32 A
33 A
34 C
35 C
36 B
37 B
38 C
39 D
40 B
41 D
42 B
43 B
44 C
45 C
46 A
47 B
48 A
49 B
50 C
51 D
52 D
53 B
54 C
55 C
56 D
57 B
58 A
59 B
60 C

General intelligence and Reasoning Solved paper for Bank Jobs

Reasoning Solved paper for Bank Jobs
Solved Question Papers, Answer : Probationary Officer Reasoning
General intelligence and reasoning solved papers
1. Rearrange the first four letters, in any way, of the word DECISION. Find how many words can be formed by using all the four words.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) More than three
(e) No meaningful word is formed
Ans. (a)
2. A number of friends decided to go on a picnic and planned to spend Rs 960 on food. Four of them, however, did not turn up. As a consequence, the remaining ones had to contribute Rs 40 each extra. The number of those who attended the picnic was:
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24
Ans. (a)
3. In a caravan, in addition to 50 hens, there are 45 goats and 8 camels with some keepers. If the total number of feet be 224 more than the number of heads in the caravan, find the number of keepers.
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 15
Ans. (d)
4. If ? stands for ‘addition’, < stands for ‘subtraction’, + stands for ‘division’, > stands for ‘multiplication’, – stands for ‘equal to’, ÷ stands for ‘greater than’ and = stands for ‘less than’, state which of the following is true?
(a) 3 ? 2 < 4 ÷ 16 > 2 + 4
(b) 5 > 2 + 2 = 10 < 4 ? 8
(c) 3 ? 4 > 2 – 9 + 3 < 3
(d) 5 ? 3 < 7 ÷ 8 + 4 ? 1
Ans. (b)
Directions: In each of the following questions, an equation becomes incorrect due to the interchange of two signs. One of the four alternatives under it specifies the interchange of signs in the equation, which when made will make the equation correct. Find the correct alternative.
5. 56 ÷ 7 ? 2 + 8 – 1 = 9
(a) ? and –
(b) ÷ and ?
(c) + and –
(d) + and ÷
Ans. (c)
6. 77 + 7 ? 2 ÷ 4 – 7 = 19
(a) ÷ and –
(b) ÷ and +
(c) + and ?
(d) + and –
Ans. (b)
Directions: In following question if the interchanges are made in signs and numbers, which one of the four equations would be correct?
7. Given interchanges: Signs: + and – and numbers 2 and 1
(a) 1 – 2 + 3 = 0
(b) 1 + 2 – 5 = 7
(c) 1 + 2 – 3 = 7
(d) 1 – 3 + 2 = 1
Ans. (a)

8. If 36 ? 32 = 9623; 25 ? 82 = 8522; 68 ? 75 = 7856, then 47 ? 52 = ?
(a) 5742
(b) 5274
(c) 7427
(d) 5724
(e) 2574
Ans. (d)
9. If 32 ? 41 = 15; 51 ? 34 = 46; 41 ? 52 = 37, then 87 ? 53 = ?
(a) 68
(b) 64
(c) 85
(d) 18
(e) 42
Ans. (d)
10. Which letter occurs most often in the word?
APPROPRIATE
(a) A
(b) E
(c) R
(d) P
Ans. (d)
11. How many independent words can be formed without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?
CAPABILITY
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Ans. (b)
12. If it is possible to form a word with the first, fourth, seventh and eleventh letters of the word ‘SUPERFLOUS’, write the first letter of that word. Otherwise, X is the answer.
(a) S
(b) L
(c) O
(d) X
Ans. (d)
Directions (Questions 13 to 16): Each of the following questions is based on the following alphabet series.
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
13. Which letter is eighth to the left of sixteenth letter from the right end?
(a) B
(b) S
(c) C
(d) H
Ans. (c)
14. Which letter is exactly midway between H and S in the given alphabet?
(a) No such letter
(b) L
(c) M
(d) O
Ans. (a)
15. Which letter should be ninth letter to the left of ninth letter from the right, if the first half of the given alphabet is reversed.
(a) D
(b) E
(c) F
(d) I
Ans. (b)
16. If every even letter beginning from B is replaced by odd number starting with 3, which letter/number will be the third to the right of the tenth number/letter counting from your right.
(a) M
(b) S
(c) 11
(d) 21
Ans. (d)
17. Pointing out to a photograph, a man tells his friend, “She is the daughter of the only son of my father’s wife.” How is the girl related to the man in the photograph?
(a) Daughter
(b) Cousin
(c) Mother
(d) Sister
(e) Niece
Ans. (a)
18. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grand father.” How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?
(a) Mother
(b) Aunt
(c) Sister
(d) Daughter
(e) Grand mother
Ans. (c)
19. In a row of students of Ravi’s class, Ravi is 17th from either end of the row. How many students are there in his class?
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 33
(d) 19
(e) 36
Ans. (c)
20. In a cricket season, India defeated Australia twice, West Indies defeated India twice, Australia defeated West Indies twice, India defeated New Zealand twice and West Indies defeated New Zealand twice which country has lost most number of times?
(a) India
(b) Australia
(c) New Zealand
(d) West Indies
(e) None of these
Ans. (c)
21. Six students A, B, C, D, Band F are sitting in a field. A and B are from Delhi while the rest are from Bangalore. D and F are tall while others are short A, C, Dare girls while others are boys. Which is the tall girl from Bangalore?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) F
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
22. In a group of cows and hens, the number of legs is 14 more than twice the number of heads. How many cows are in the group?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 11
(d) 12
(e) 9
Ans. (b)
Directions (Questions 23—24): Study the following information and answer the questions given below it:
There is a group of five persons K, G, H, R and J.
(i) K, G and H are intelligent
(ii) K, R and J are hard-working
(iii) R, H and J are honest and
(iv) K, G and J are ambitious
23. Which of the following persons is neither hardworking nor ambitious?
(a) K
(b) G
(c) H
(d) R
(e) None of these
Ans. (c)
24. Which of the following persons is neither honest nor hard working but is ambitious?
(a) K
(b) G
(c) R
(d) H
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
25. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and Fare sitting in a circle. B is between F and C; A is between E and D; F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) A
(e) F
Ans. (c)

Sample Paper Objective Type for Music teacher Jobs in KVS UGC NET

Sample Paper Objective Type for Music teacher Jobs in KVS UGC NET UGC NET Solved Model paper Music Sample Questions papers of competitive exams of india:Music

1. Andolan Sankhya of Pancham is? (A) 240 (C) 320 (B)270 (D)360

2. The Book written by Pt.Damodar (A) Sadrag Chandrodaya (B) Sangeetraj (C) Sangeet Ratnakar (D) Sangeet [...]

Free Solved objective practice Questions on thermodynamics in Physics

Free Solved objective practice Questions on thermodynamics in Physics Solved Sample Problems Based on Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Practice set on Thermodynamics

1. General gas equation is (a) PV = RT (b) PV= mRT (c) PV = Constant (d) = constant ANSWER: (a)

2. An isolated system is one, which (a) Permits the passage of [...]

India GK Geo questions for RRB UPSC Exams

India GK Geo questions for RRB UPSC Exams RRB and UPSC exams contain questions on Indian geography This is sample test containing 20 questions on Indian geography 1. Which State has the largest coastline in India? (a) Gujarat (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh Answer (a)

2. Which of the following latitudes [...]

Tamil Nadu PCS Exam 2009 general Awareness MCQ previous paper Exam Questions

Tamil Nadu PCS Exam 2009 general Awareness MCQ previous paper Exam Questions

This test Consisted of  questions on

Reasoning

Science

Numerical Aptitude

Current  india

Current World

This paper is useful for all Who are appearing in State level PCS exams and UPSC

Many of Tamil nadu based MCQ questions are very useful for [...]

World Geography Model test paper For KVS PGT TGT Teachers exam and UPSC Civil Services and IES Exam

world Geography Model test paper For KVS PGT TGT Teachers exam and UPSC Civil Services and IES Exam

1. The longest inland waterways in the world is— (A) Mississippi river system (B) The Great Lakes (C) St. Lawrence (D) River Rhine

2. Which one of the following countries has the highest average of road [...]

objective test Human behaviour heredity

objective test Human behaviour heredity

Human Genetics Test Personality psychology 1. An extra chromosome on pair 21 results in a form of mental deficiency commonly called (a) Mongolism (b) Turner’s Syndrome (c) Klinefelter’s Syndrome (d) None of the above Ans. (a)

2. Many behavioural changes that occur in the early months of life are [...]

Indian History – General Knowledge Questions and Answers

Indian History – General Knowledge Questions and Answers Indian History For UPSC IAS Test Indian History Quiz Multiple choice questions

1. The Post-Gupta social structure in North India was marked by the — (A) Growing importance of women (B) Lessening of untouchability (C) Proliferation of castes (D) Revival of slavery Ans. (C)

2. The [...]