MCQ Model Test paper Central Police Forces Assistant Commandants Examination 2010

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MCQ Model Test paper Central Police Forces Assistant Commandants Examination 2010
For Paper I : General Ability and Intelligence

The objective type questions with multiple choices in this paper will broadly cover the following areas:

#1. General Mental Ability/Reasoning

#2. General Science

#3. Current Events of National and International Importance:

#4. Indian Polity and Economy and History :

#5. Indian and World Geography:

1. Who among the following was not associated with the Home Rule Movement?
(A) C. R. Das
(B) S. Subrarnaniya Iyer
(C) Annie Bes
(D) B. G. Tilak

2. Read the following events connected with Indian National Movement and find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below—
1. Cripps Mission
2. Cabinet Mission Plan
3. Quit India Movement
4. Wavell Offer
(B) 1,2,3,4

3 With which .one of the following movements was Aruna Asaf Ali associated
(A) Khilafat Movement
(B) Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) Quit India Movement
4. The official historian of India’s struggle for independence was?
(A) R. C. Majumdar
(B) Tarachand
(C) V. D. Savarkar
(D) S.N.Sen

5. who out of the following had told “Destruction is the best method of dealing with the foreign clothes”?
(A) Ravindra Nath Tagore
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Chitranjan Das
(D) Subhas Chandra Bose

6. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Larry Collins and Domini ue Lapierre—Freedom at Midnight
(B) Durg aDas—India from Curzon to Nehru and After
(C)K. K. Aziz—The Man Who Divided India
(D)Maulana Abul Kalam Azad—India Wins Freedom

7.Given below are two statements labelled as—
Assertion (A) : The Congress boycotted the Simon Commision.
Reason (R) : The Simon Commission did not have a single Indian member.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(D)(A) is false, but (R) is true

8. Which one of the following terms refers to the process of scooping the soil and Blowing it away in arid areas ?
(A) Abrasion
(B) Deflection
(C) Deflation
(D) None of these

9. The main type of weathering in the region of limestone topography is ?
(A) mechanical weathering
(B) chemical weathering
(C) exfoliation
(D) attrition

10. Where was Mahatma Gandhi when a raid was made by Congress Volunteers on Dharsana Salt Depot?
(A) In Yervada Jail
(B) In Sabarmati Jail
(C) In Agha Khan Palace Poona
(D) In Abmadnagar Fort Jail

11. In which of the following movements did Mahatma Gandhi make the first use of hunger strike as a weapon?
(A) Non-Cooperation Movement
(B) Rowlatt Satyagraha
(C) Ahmedabad Strike
(D) Bardoli Satyagraha

12. Mention of which of the following rivers in the Rigveda suggests the Aryan’s connection with Afghanistan?
(A) Asikni
(B) Parushni
(C) Kubha, Kramu
(D) Vipas, Sutudri

13. The entry of woman as a bhikshuni into the Buddhist Sangha was allowed by Gautam Buddha at?

(B) Vaisali
(C) Rajagriha
(D) Kushinagar

14. Choose the Correct pair
(A)Ehlora Caves —Saka
(B) Mahabalipuram—Rashtrakutas
(C) Meenakshi Temple—Pallavas
(D) Khajuraho —Chandellas

15. In which of the Indian Provinces the first Communist Goyernment was established?
(A) Tamilnadu
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Kerala
(D) West Bengal

16. The author of the book “India Divided” was?
(A)Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B)Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C)Narendra Deva
(D)Asaf Ali

17. The minimum percentage of population below the poverty Limit is recorded in?
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Punjab
(C) Haryana
(D) Goa

18. Jhooming is practised by?
(A) The Bhotias
(B) The Khasis
(C) The Santhals
(D) The Todas

19. Which one of the following bio sphere reserves is not included in the list of world network of bio sphere reserves of UNESCO?
(A) Simlipal
(B) Sunderban
(C) Gulf of Mannar
(D) Nilgiri

20. As per Census 2001, the class I cities of India daim a share of the total urban population of—
(B) 56.50%
(D) 62.32%

21. Which Megacity of India generates the largest solid waste per capita annually?
(A) Bangalore
(B) Chennai
(D) Mumbai

22. Today the largest contributor to carbon dioxide emissions is?
(B) Japan
(D) U.S.A.

23. Which one of the following is the most important factor responsible for decline of bio-diversity?
(A) Genetic assimilation
(B) Controlling predators
(C) Destruction of habitat -
(D) Controlling pests

24. Which one of the following States of India has the highest rural literacy rate ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Manipur
(C) Goa
(D) Gujarat

25 Which one of the following lakes has been recently included under
National Lake Conservation Project?
(A) Bhimtal
(B) Pulicat
(C) Ooty
(D) Sambhar

2. The population of U.P. exceeds that of?
1. Bangladesh
2. Brazil
4. Indonesia
Select the correct answer from
the following codes—
(A)l and 2
(B) l and 3
(C)2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4

27. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A) : Madhya Pradesh is called the Ethiopia of India.
Reason (R) : Its hallmarks are excessive infantile mortality and malnutrition.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

28. The UNESCO has given international recognition to?
1. Nilgiri Biosphere
2. Narida Devi Biosphere
3Manas Biosphere
4.Simlipal Biosphere
Select the correct answer from the following codes
(A)l and 2
(B)l and 3
(C)2 and 3
(D)2 and 4

29 National Renewal Fund was constituted for the purpose of?
(A) Providing pension for retiring employees
(B) Social security
(C) Rural reconstruction
(D) Restructuring and modernisation of industries

30. Open-market operations of Re serve Bank of India refer to?
(A) Trading in securities
(B) Auctioning of Foreign Ex change
(C) Transaction in gold
(D) None of the above

31. If interest payment is added to primary deficit, it is equivalent to-
(A) Budget deficit
(B) Fiscal deficit
(C) Deficit financing
(D) Revenue deficit

32. Consider the following statements and state which is/are correct?
1. The sub-prime crisis which hit the U. S. economy was caused by sudden increase in oil prices
2. The crisis led to default in home loan repayment
3. It led to failure of some U.S. banks
4. Sub-prime crisis caused crash in Indian Stock Market
Choose your an from given codes.
Codes :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 4only
(C) 2, 3, and 4 only
(D) 1,2,3 and 4

33. Which of the following provides the largest credit to Agriculture and allied sectors?
(A) Cooperative Banks
(B) Regional Rural Banks
(C) Commercial Banks
(D) Cooperative and Regional Rural Banks jointly

34. Who had suggested an imposition of ‘expenditure tax’ in India for the first time?
(A) Kalecki
(B) Kaldor
(C) R. J. Chelliah
(D) Gautam Mathur

35. An increase in CRR by the Reserve Bank of India results in?
(A) Decrease in debt of the government
(B) Reduction in liquidity in the economy
(C) Attracting more FDJ in the country
(D) More flow of credit to desired sectors

36. Special Economic Zone (SEZ) Act became effective in?
(B) 2005
(D) 2007

37. In the 11th Five Year Plan, which of the following sectors accounts for maximum combined Central, State and UT. expenditure?
(A) Transport
(B) Energy
(C) Agriculture and Rural Development
(D) Social sector

38. In which of the following Committees there is no representation of Rajya Sabha?
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Committee on Public Under takings
(C) Estimates Committee
(D) Committee on Government Assurances

39. Provision regarding Panchayats and Municipalities was made in the Indian Constitution in which year?
(A) 1991
(B) 1995
(C) 2000
(D) 1993

40. Which one of the following writs is issued during the pendency of proceedings in a court?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Certiorari
(C) Prohibition
(D) Quo warranto

41. The word ‘Secularism’ was inserted in the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution by
(A) 25th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 52nd Amendment

42. Mid day Meal Scheme is financed and managed by?
(A) Food and Civil Supply Department of State Governments
(B) Department of Consumer Affairs and Welfare
(C) Ministry of Programme Implementation
(D) Ministry of Human Resource Development

43. The following States were created after 1960. Arrange them in ascending chronological order of their formation and choose your answer from the given codes.
1. Haryana
2. Sikkim
3. Nagaland
4. Meghalaya
(A) 1,2,3,4
(B) 2,3,4,1
(C) 3,1,4,2
(D) 2,4,1,3

44. The function of the Pro-Temp. Speaker is to?
(A) Conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of Speaker
(B) Swearing members
(C) Officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is unlikely to be elected
(D) Only check if the election certificates of the members are in order

45. The Provision for the Calling Attention Notices has restricted the scope of which of the following?
(A) Short duration discussion
(B) Question hour
(C) Adjournment motion
(D) Zero hour

46. In countries where polished rice is the mean cereal in their diet, people suffer from?
(B) Beri-beri
(D) Osteomalacia

47. Which one of the following silver salts is used for producing artificial rains?
(A) Silver chloride
(B) Silver bromide
(C) Silver nitrate
(D) Silver iodide
48. The hypo solution used in photo graphy is the aqueous solution Of?
(A) Sodium thiosulphate
(B) Sodium tetrathionate
(C) Sodium sulphate
(D) Ammonium per sulphate
49. Accumulation of which one of the following in the muscles leads to fatigue?
(A) Lactic acid
(B) Benzoic acid
(C) Pyruvic add
(D) Uric acid
50. Which one of the following had supported the Non-cooperation movement, but could not see its upshots?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) Motilal Nehru
(D) Chitranjan Das


1 A
2 A
3 D
4 D
5 A
6 C
7 A
8 C
9 B
10 A
11 C
12 C
13 B
14 D
15 C
16 B
17 A
18 B
19 A
20 D
21 D
22 D
23 C
24 C
25 C
26 B
27 D
28 A
29 D
30 A
31 B
32 C
33 B
34 B
35 B
36 C
37 D
38 C
39 D
40 B
41 B
42 D
43 C
44 B
45 A
46 B
47 D
48 A
49 A
50 A

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