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Public Administration Multiple Choice Questions Test Paper Solved
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1. What is a ‘Shadow Cabinet’ in the British system?
(a) A group of young members of the ruling party
(b) A group of members from the opposition party who scrutinize some functions of the government and present alternative policy
(c) A team of intellectuals who advise the Cabinet
(d) A Cabinet Committee that functions under the guidance of the Cabinet
Ans. (b)

2. Consider the following statements about the features of the administrative system in France:
1. Ministers are more concerned with direct administration in the provinces.
2. Specialist personnel are found only in small numbers in the advisory and policy-making roles.
3. Freedom of executive action from the legislature’s supervision increased under the Fifth Republic.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) Only 1 and 3
Ans. (a)

3. Which of the following Departments of the Government of India were put under the Cabinet Secretariat at the time of their creation?
1. Department of Electronics
2. Department of Scientific and Industrial Research
3. Department of Personnel
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) had recommended that the Department of Personnel of a State should be put under the charge of the Chief Secretary of the State.
2. Chief Secretary of a State is not involved in any manner in the promotion of State Civil officers to the All-India Services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)

5. Who among the following are administratively linked with the Department of Personnel and Training?
1. Central Bureau of Investigation
2. Union Public Service Commission
3. Central Vigilance Commission
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

6. Consider the following statements:
1. The British Civil Service developed during the period of laissez-faire, whereas the French Civil Service developed when there was an emphasis on state intervention.
2. French higher education is much more career- oriented than the British system.
Which of the statements given above is are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

7. The Fifth Central Pay Commission suggested that no IAS officer should be posted as a District Collector unless he has completed
(a) 8 years. of service
(b) 9 years of service
(c) 10 years of service
(d) 11 years of service
Ans. (b)

8. Consider the following statements about the civil service system of Japan:
1. Permanent employees are generally hired as generalists, and not as specialists, for specific positions.
2. Career progression is highly predictable, regulated and automatic.
3. Salary increases and promotions each year are generally uniform for members of the same graduating class who join an employer together.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only l and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

9. In which year was the decision making of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the Central Government for its financial administration?
(a) Year 1950
(b) Year 1965
(c) Year 1976
(d) Year2000
Ans. (c)

10. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The main function of the Public Accounts Committee is to examine the Report of the Comptroller an Auditor-General of India.
(b) The Public Accounts Committee comprises Members of the Lok Sabha only.
(c) A member of opposition can also be appointed as the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee.
(d) A member of the Public Accounts Committee can be re-elected for a second term.
Ans. (b)

11. Consider the following statements:
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 mandates the Union Government to eliminate the revenue deficit by the year20l0-11.
2. Under the FRBM Act, 2003 and the FRBM Rules, 2004, that Union Government is under obligation not to borrow directly from the Reserve Bank of India with effect from April 1, 2008.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)

12. Consider the following statements:
1. Zero-base budgeting is useful for comparing programmes and assisting financial decision makers.
2. Zero-base budgeting involves allocation of resources to agencies based on periodic reevaluation by those ‘agencies of the need for different programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

13. Assertion (A): The Annual Financial Statement presented in the Lok Sabha contains apart from the estimates of expenditure, ways and means to raise revenue.
Reason(R): After the Annual Financial Statement is presented in the Lok Sabha, the Estimates Committee examines it.
Ans. (c)

14. Consider the following statements:
Performance budgeting is a system of resources allocation that:
1. Organizes the budget document by operations and programmes
2. links performance levels of operations and programmes with specific budget amounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

15. Which one of the following statements about the Central Board of Direct Taxes is not correct?
(a) The Central Board of Direct Taxes provides essential inputs for policy and planning of direct
taxes in India.
(b) The Central Board of Direct Taxes is not responsible for administration of direct tax laws.
(c) The Chairman and Members of the Central Board of Direct Taxes are selected from the Indian Revenue Service only.
(d) Various functions and responsibilities of the Central Board of Direct Taxes are distributed amongst the Chairman and the Members, with only fundamental
issues reserved for collective decision by the Board.
Ans. (c)

16. Consider the following statements in respect of the New Pension System for the new entrants to the service under the Central Government:
1. The New Pension System was operationalised from January 1, 2004.
2. The New Pension System is based on a defined contribution – twelve and a half per cent of the salary and dearness allowance by the employee, which is matched by the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)

17. Consider the following statements in respect of the recommendations of the Fifth Central Pay Commission:
1. Flexible Complementing Scheme of Promotion first introduced by the Third Central Pay Commission should be withdrawn.
2. Cadre reviews should ensure that an across the board reduction of 1% of manpower per year is achieved.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)

18. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, whether the expenditure is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or it is an amount voted by the Lok Sabha, no money can be issued out of the Consolidated Fund of India unless the expenditure is authorized by an Appropriation Act.
2. the Rajya Sabha has the power of amending or rejecting the Appropriation Bill or the Annual Finance Bill.
3. The Rajya Sabha has no farther business with the Annual Financial Statement beyond the general discussion.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) Only 1 and 3
Ans. (a)

19. Consider the following statements:
1. After the demands for grants in the Annual Financial Statement are voted by the Lok Sabha, the grants so made as well as the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India are incorporated in the Annual Finance Bill.
2. The taxing proposals of the budget are included in an Appropriation Bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)

20. Consider the following statements:
1. Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court of India are not subject to a vote in the Parliament.
2. No discussion on the conduct of a Judge of the Supreme Court ofIndian take place in Parliament except upon a motion for an address to the President of India fo reioval of the judge. S
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

21. Consider the following statements:
1. The Estimates Committee comprises 20 members elected each year by the Lok Sabha from its elected members and 10 members elected each year by the Rajya Sabha from its elected members.
2. The Estimates Committee has no role in suggesting the form in which the estimates shall be presented to the Parliament as that i a function of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only l
(b) Only 2
(c) Both and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)

22. Consider the following statements:
1. The Twelfth Finance Commission has not recommended the continuation of Fiscal Reforms Facility.
2. In the Twelfth Finance Commission Report for the period 2005-10, the grants-in-aid recommended for maintaining public buildings is five times more than that for maintaining forests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

23. Which one among the following is responsible for all policy issues pertaining to external aid received by the Government of India?
(a) Planning Commission
(b) Department of Economic Affairs, Government of India
(c) Department of Revenue, Government of India
(d) Finance Commission
Ans. (b)

24. When the Lok Sabha makes any grant in advance in respect of the estimated expenditure for a part of any financial year pending the completion of the procedure prescribed in the Constitution of India, this is called
(a) Vote on account
(b) Vote of credit
(c) Supplementary grant
(d) Additional grant
Ans. (a)

25. Who recommends to the Governor the principles which should govern the distribution between the State and the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes, tolls and fees leviable by the State which may be divided between them?
(a) Zilla Parishad
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Finance Minister of the State
(d) State Finance Commission
Ans. (d)

26. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India grants personal immunity to the President of India and the Governor of a State for official acts, but no such immunity is granted to the Ministers.
2. Civil proceedings may be brought against the President of India or the Governor of a State in respect of their personal acts only if six months’ notice has been delivered to them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor2
Ans. (a)

27. Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers of a State in India is collectively as well as individually responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State.
2. The Governor of a State has the power to appoint the Members of the State Public Service Commission as well as the State High Court Judges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)

28. The President of India may from time to time fix the number of Election Commissioners of the Election Commission of India on the basis of:
(a) Advice by the Chief Election Commissioner
(b) Advice by the Prime Minister’s Office
(c) Recommendation of the Union Law Ministry
(d) The law made in that respect by the Parliament
Ans. (d)

29. Consider the following statements:
1. In the British system, the accounts are prepared by its Comptroller and Auditor-General.
2. The Office of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is substantially modeled upon that of the Auditor-General under the Government of India Act, 1935.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
Ans. (b)

30. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has the power to audit which of the following?
1. All expenditure from the Contingency Fund and the Public Account of the Union.
2. All expenditure from the Contingency Fund and the Public Account of a State.
3. All expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of each Union Territory having a Legislative Assembly of its own.
4. Accounts of all Government companies set up under the Indian Companies Act.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 3 and 4
(d) Only 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)

31. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the members of the Council of Ministers at the Centre into different ranks.
2. A member f one House of the Parliament who has been chosen as a Union Minister does not have the right to vote in the House of which he is not a member.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
Ans. (b)

32. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides that every person who is a member of a defense service or a civil service of the Union or of All-India Services holds the office during the pleasure of the President of India?
(a) Article 310
(b) Article 315
(c) Article 323
(d) Article 323A
Ans. (a)

33. Who handles the work relating to the drafting of the Rules of Business of the Union Government’?
(a) Office of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Cabinet Secretariat
(c) Prime Minister’s Office
(d) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans. (b)

34. Who among the following is responsible for evaluation and processing of proposals relating to the capital restructuring of various Central Public Sector Undertakings of the Union Government?
(a) Controller General of Accounts
(b) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(c) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
(d) Department of Public Enterprises
Ans. (a)

35. Assertion (A): The President of India causes every recommendation made by the Finance Commission under the provisions of the Constitution of India to be laid before the Lok Sabha only.
Reason (R): The Finance Commission is a body set up tinder the provisions of the Constitution of India.
Ans. (d)

36. Assertion (A): The principle of Cabinet responsibility in the States differs from that in the Union of India.
Reason (R): The Constitution of India does not empower the President of India to exercise any function ‘in his discretion’; it authorizes the Governor to exercise some functions ‘in his discretion’.
Ans. (c)

37. Assertion (A): An Election Commissioner in the Election Commission of India cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Reason (R): An Election Commissioner is appointed on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Ans. (c)

38. Assertion (A): The District Collector in Independent India has less judicial authority than in pre-Independence India.
Reason (R): Article 50 of the Constitution of India separates the Judiciary from the Executive.
Ans. (a)

39. Assertion (A): The agenda for meetings of the National Development Council is prepared by the Planning Commission Secretariat.
Reason (R): The Secretary of the National Development Council is also the Secretary of the Planning Commission.
Ans. (b)

40. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of the Union Public Service Commission?
(a) The Constitution of India does not specify the number of Members of the Union Public Service Commission while it specifies the number in case of the Supreme Court Judges.
(b) As nearly as may be one-half of the Members of the Union Public Service Commission must have held office for at least ten years either under the Government of India or under the Government of a State prior to their joining the Commission.
(c) On ceasing to hold office, a Member of the Union Public. Service Commission’ other than the Chairman is eligible for appointment as the Chairman of a State Public Service Commission.
(d) Before creation of a new Group ‘A’ post under the Central Government, a clearance from the Union Public Service Commission is required.
Ans. (d)

41. Who among the following come under the jurisdiction of the Central Vigilance Commission?
1. Members of All-India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union and Group A officers of the Central Government.
2. Senior officers in the Public Sector Undertakings of the Central Government.
3. Senior officers in the Public Sector Banks.
4. Senor officers in the Insurance Companies in the Public Sector.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only l and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

42. Consider the following statements:
1. The Central Vigilance Commission comprises a Central Vigilance Commissioner and three Vigilance Commissioners.
2. The Central Vigilance Commission became a multi- member Commission with statutory status in the year 1998 after promulgation of an Ordinance by the President of India.
3. The Committee for the selection to the post of the Director in the Directorate of Enforcement, Ministry of Finance, and Government of India is chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) Only 1 and 3
Ans. (c)

43. Whenever the Governor of a State has to address the State Legislature, who among the following prepares his address?
(a) Chief Secretary of the State
(b) Chief Minister and his Council of Ministers
(c) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
(d) Governor himself
Ans. (b)

44. What is the time-limit within which a non-Money Bill has to be sent to the legislature by the Governor for reconsideration?
(a) 14 days
(b) One month
(c) Three months
(d) No time-limit is specified
Ans. (d)

45. Which of the following taxes belong to a State of Indian Union exclusively?
1. Taxes on lands and buildings
2. Taxes on mineral rights
3. Taxes on entry of goods into local areas
4. Taxes on income other than agricultural income
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Only l, 2 and 3
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only l and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)

46. Who among the following is not a member of the committee which makes recommendation to the President of India for appointment as Chief Information
Commissioner and Information Commissioners?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
(c) A Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister
(d) Union Law Minister
Ans. (d)

47. In the present context, the Planning Commission of India
is focusing on which of the following?
1. Information dissemination role
2. Systems change role
3. Indicative planning for the Indian economy
Select the correct answer using the code give below:
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

48. What is the pre-tax disparity ratio i.e. the ratio of the maximum basic pay (of the post of Secretary to the Government of India) and minimum basic pay for the Central Government employees on the basis of the recommendations of the Fifth Central Pay Commission?
(a) 9.6
(b) 10.7
(c) 11.4
(d) 12.2
Ans. (c)

49. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners in the Election Commission of India,
(a) the matter is to be referred to the Supreme Court of India
(b) the opinion of the Chief Election Commissioner is final
(c) the matter is to be referred to the Law Commission
(d) the matter is decided by the Election Commission by majority
Ans. (d)

50. In the Constitution of India, economic and social planning is included in the
(a) Union List of the VII Schedule
(b) State List of the VII Schedule
(c) Concurrent List of the VII Schedule.
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

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