Solved Multiple Choice Questions in Zoology

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Solved Multiple Choice Questions in Zoology
Zoology Objective Type Questions
Objective Zoology All type of objective questions
Biology questions answers Zoology
1. During oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria synthesis of ATP occurs due to
(a) oxidation of glucose by glycolysis
(b) electrochemical proton gradient
(c) oxidation of NADH to NAD
(d) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl Co-A
Ans. (b)

2. C-value paradox refers to the presence of:
(a) more DNA than needed for coding
(b) less number of t-RNA than needed for polypeptide formation
(c) larger number of ribosomes than needed for polypeptide synthesis
(d) less number of RNA polymerase than needed for RNA synthesis
Ans. (a)

3. How many type of t-RNA are found in an eukaryotic cell?
(a) 64-one each for genetic codon
(b) 20-one each for amino acids
(c) 03-related to protein synthesis
(d) 02-related to ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum
Ans. (a)

4. “Sex-linked genes” refer to genes:
(a) present in a particular sex
(b) controlling secondary sexual characters
(c) controlling both primary and secondary sexual characters
(d) present on the sex chromosomes
Ans. (d)

5. Insertion or deletion of a nucleotide in a class of mutation resulting in a sequence of codon that makes nonsensical polypeptide chain is called:
(a) transversion
(b) inversion
(c) frame shift mutation
(d) lethal mutation
Ans. (c)

6. Cancer causing genes are called:
(a) operons
(b) oncogenes
(c) recons
(d) mutons
Ans. (b)

7. Copper is associated with which one of the following mitochondrial enzymes?
(a) Cytochrome oxidase
(b) Succinic dehydrogenase
(c) Catalase
(d) Acid phosphatase
Ans. (a)

8. RNA molecules, capable of catalyzing a chemical reaction such as self-splicing are known as:
(a) isozymes
(b) ribozymes
(c) ribosomes
(d) lysosomes
Ans. (b)

9. ‘a’ is an autosomal gene and is responsible for albino character. A male rat heterozygous for ‘a’ is crossed with a female rat of same genotype. How many of the F1 offspring will express ‘a’ phenotype (i.e., albino)?
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 25%
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)

10. Proteins that are used only outside the cell are synthesized:
(a) in the mitochondria
(b) on the rough endoplasmic reticulum
(c) on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(d) on free ribosomes
Ans. (d)

11. Cystic fibrosis, a disease, develops in people who inherit two copies of a recessive allele. If a man with cystic fibrosis marries a woman without the disease and for whom there is no family history of the disease, what is the probability that their child will be carrier?
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.50
(c) 0.75
(d) 1.00
Ans. (d)

12. Which one of the following enzymes is not proteinacious in nature?
(a) Rennin
(b) Ribozyme
(c) Pepsin
(d) Trypsin
Ans. (b)

13. When a child with blood group 1A, 1B is born of a woman with genotype 1B 11B, the father of the child could not be a man of the genotype:

(a) IB / IB

(b) IA / IA

(c) IA / IB

(d) IA / I

Ans. (a)

14. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a generic trait that is carried in the bacteria cell in:
(a) chromosome
(b) intron
(c) plasmid
(d) centromere
Ans. (c)

15. Which enzyme catalyzes the unwinding of DNA helix during replication?
(a) Primase
(b) Topoisomerase
(c) DNA-polymerase
(d) Helicase
Ans. (d)

16. The deletion or insertion of a base pair into the generic code causes a frame shift mutation unless the number of the base pairs deleted or inserted is:
(a) one base pair
(b) two base pairs
(d) three base pairs
(d) four base pairs
Ans. (a)

17. Match the list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. A-T change to G-C 1. Alkylation
B. Acridine molecule mimics nuclecaide, 2. Pyrimidine dimer
pairs and is inserted between 2 adjacent ones
C. – CH3 is attached to a purine base 3. Base pair substitution
D Two adjacent thymides of the same strand join covalently 4. Transversion

5. Frame shift
(a) 3 2 4 5
(b) 5 3 1 2
(c) 3 5 1 2
(d) 4 5 2 1
Ans. (c)

18. The enzymes involved in interconversion of relaxed and super coiled forms of DNA molecules are called:
(a) DNA ligases
(b) topoispmerases
(c) polymerases
(d) exontcleases
Ans. (b)

19. Which of the following amino acids has single codon?
(a) Isoleucine
(b) Tryptophan
(c) Valine
(d) Arginine
Ans. (b)

20. How many base pairs are present per helical turn in 2-DNA?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
Ans. (d)

21. DNA foot printing technique is usually used to identify:
(a) the sites of DNA where DNA binding proteins attach
(b) the segment of DNA which code for a specific protein
(c) the bindings site of RNA polymerase to its promoter region,
(d) the site for termination of transcription processes
Ans. (a)

22. Which one of the following function is performed by the restriction enzyme?
(a) Removing exons from the RNA
(b) Removing introns from the RNA transcript
(c) Cutting up foreign DNA
(d) Removing methyl group from DNA
Ans. (c)

23. Which one of the following describes a cosmid?
(a) A plasmid in which cos sites of phage have been integrated
(b) A cohesive oxidation status of a lysosomes in the middle of its hydrolytic action
(c) A segment which is common in all plasmids
(d) The phage has been integrated to PUC 18
Ans. (a)

24. How dosage compensation is achieved in Drosophila?
(a) One of the X-chromosomes in females in inactivated
(b) The activity of the single X-chromosome in males is up regulated
(c) The activity of the two X-citromosomes in females is down regulated
(d) The activity of the autosomes in females is down regulated
Ans. (b)

25. Pre messenger RNA (pre- m-RNA) must be modified before translation because
(a) Pre-m-RNA contained leader sequence
(b) pre-m-RNA contained the non-coding sequences (intron) within the coding region
(c) pre-m-RNA contained methylated G nucleotide
(d) pre-m-RNA is longer than the gene
Ans. (b)

26. Where is the enzyme that catalyzes peptide bonding located?
(a) Larger sub-unit of the ribosome
(b) Smaller sub-unit of the ribosome
(c) Leader region of the m-RNA
(d) t-RNA
Ans. (a)

27. Which one of the following is the first event in eukaryotic translation process during the binding of the m-RNA leader sequences?
(a) The binding of the m-RNA leader to the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
(b) The binding of the m-RNA leader to the larger ribosomal sub-unit
(c) The binding of the m-RNA leader to the polysomal core
(d) The binding of the m-RNA leader to t-RNA.
Ans. (a)

28. For the production of monoclonal antibody, which one of the following cell lines is used?
(a) Chinese Hamster Ovary (CHO) cells
(b) Myeloma cells
(c) Hela cells
(d) Fibroblast cells
Ans. (b)

29. Duchene muscular dystrophy is caused by the presence of:
(a) a defective gene in X-chromosome
(b) and extra 18th chromosome
(c) two X-chromosomes and one Y-chromosome in an individual
(d) an extra 21st chromosome
Ans. (a)

30. Synaptonemal complex helps in:
(a) gamete formation
(b) recombination during cell division
(c) production of enzymes during cell division
(d) chromosomal movement towards poles
Ans. (b)

32. Which one of the following correctly represents the nature of blood in the ABO system of blood groups pertaining to the presence of antigens and antibodies?
(a) Blood group A – Antibody a and antigen B
(b) Blood group B – Antigen B and antibody b and antibody a
(c) Blood group AB – Both antibodies a and b
(d) Blood group O – No antigens and no antibodies
Ans. (b)

33. If the sequence of bases in 6 base pair long palindromic sequence on one side of the axis of symmetry is 5GAA the complete sequence of bases of this palindromic sequence will be:
Ans. (d)

34. DNA shows hyperchromicity on:
(a) heating
(b) cooling
(c) crystallizing
(d) lyophilizing
Axis. (a)

35. The intervening sequence of ‘gene’ is known as:
(a) intron
(b) exon
(c) cistron
(d) codon
Ans. (a)

36. If a mutation occurs in a gamete it would influence:
(a) only the particular sex of the progeny, whose gamete and undergone mutation
(b) only a singled individual
(c) all successive generation of the parents
(d) sterility in the progeny
Ans. (b)

37. An analysis of chromosomes in a big city revealed the presence of four types of rather rare human being, whose sex-chromosome compositions are mentioned in the list-I.
They are phenotypically either male (M) or female (F) as recorded in list-II.
Match list-I (chromosome composition) with list-II (sex) and select the correct phenotypic sex using the codes given below the lists.

List-I List-II
(Chromosome) (Composition)
A. XO 1. Male (M)
B. XXXV 2. Female (F)
(a) 1 2 1 2
(b) 2 1 1 2
(c) 1 1 2 1
(d) 2 1 1 1
Ans. (d)

38. A certain human abnormal individual showing 2 Barr bodies in the somatic cells, would be:
(a) only a male with one X-chromosome
(b) only a female with two X-chromosomes
(c) only a male having two Y-chromosomes
(d) either a male or a female having three X-chromosomes
Ans. (d)

39. Okazaki is famous for his studies on:
(a) DNA replication
(b) somatic mutions
(c) gene expression
(d) somatic hybridization
Ans. (a)

40. The cross-over percentage between is linked genes J and M is 20%, J and L is 35%, J and N is 70%, L and K is 15%, M and N is 50% and M and L is 15%.
Thus the sequence of genes on the chromosome is:
(a) J, N, M, L, K
(b) J, M, L, N, K
(c) J, M, L, K, N
(d) M, J, L, K, N
Ans. (c)

41. If a certain couple shows the probability of having only half of the sons haemophilic and only half of the daughters haemophilic the parents are likely to be:
(a) haemophilic carrier mother and haemophilic father
(b) hemophilia carrier mother and normal father
(c) normal mother and haemophilic father
(d) haemophilic mother and normal father
Ans. (a)

42. Which of the following modifications are necessary for most eukaryotic RNA processing?
1. Addition of modified nucleotide at the 5’ terminal
2. Cleavage of long precursor RNA into smaller one
3. Formulation of bases of 3’ poly (A) tail
4. Alteration of incorrect bases through proof reading.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (a)

43. Initiation of polypeptide chain formation is always brought about at the site of a codon coding for an amino acid called:
(a) Isoleucine
(b) cystein
(c) phenylalanine
(d) methionine
Ans. (d)

44. In case of lac operon when disaccharide enters the cell:
(a) it binds to the bound-repressor-to-the-operator and the structural genes are transcribed because the RNA polymerase can recognize and bind the transcription initiation site
(b) it binds to the repressor and structural genes are transcribed because the repressor has an altered conformation, is inactivated and does not bind the operator.
(c) the membrane protein interacts with the operator and the RNA polymerase can recognize the transcription initiation site
(d) the membrane protein has an altered conformation and does not interact with the operator, thus leading to the transcription of the structural genes
Ans. (b)

45. Which of the following is a mucopolysaccharide?
(a) Fibrinogen
(b) y- globulin
(c) Chitin
(d) Hyaluronic acid
Ans. (d)

46. In reference to sexual aneuploids match list-I (number of observable Barr bodies) with list-II (human sex-chromosomes) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I List-II
(Number of Observable (Human sex Chromosomes)
Barr Bodies)
A. 0 1.XXX
B. 1 2. XYY
C. 2 3. XXXX
D. 3 4. XXYY
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (b)

47. AIDS-causing HIV identifies its target cells by recognizing:
(a) low density lipoproteins in cell membranes
(b) apoproteins in the coated pits of membranes
(c) gated channels in the membranes
(d) carbohydrates of glycocalyx
Ans. (b)

48. Consider the following statements.
c-DNA libraries are prepared from isolated:
1. t-RNAs
2. r-RNAs
3. m-RNAs
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3only
Ans. (d)

49. Genetic recombination takes place during:
(a) prophase of meiotic division-I
(b) metaphase of meiotic division-II
(c) prophase of meiotic division-II
(d) metaphase of meiotic division-I
Ans. (a)

50. Which one of the following is tightly bound to the cell membrane?
(a) c-AMP
(b) Adenylate cyclase
(c) Ribonuclease
(d) ATP
Ans. (b)

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